Can a physician determine, without any input from the patient, if someone with strabismus has ZERO depth perception. Or, is that only based on feedback from the patient.
05-18-2017, 08:55 AM (This post was last modified: 05-20-2017, 09:49 AM by Nancy.)
You can check this yourself. Are both eyes working together, even some of the time? Can you see the 3D Magic Eye pictures? It's not clear to me why you need a physician for this -- I don't want you to get a dire diagnosis which will lock you into a state of feeling your eyes are broken. Here are a couple of posts I wrote about 3D vision. https://www.iblindness.org/1108/seeing-3d/
(05-18-2017, 08:55 AM)Nancy Wrote: You can check this yourself. Are both eyes working together, even some of the time? Can you see the 3D Magic Eye pictures? It's not clear to me why you need a physician for this -- I don't want you to get a dire diagnosis which will lock you into a state of feeling your eyes are broken. Here are a couple of posts I wrote about 3D vision. https://www.iblindness.org/1108/seeing-3d/
Lets suppose an individual (not myself) was attempting to gain certain compensation and entitlements by claiming that they have NO depth perception and as a result cannot work at any occupation . Also suppose that the eye doctor state's that "Due to exotropia that the patient has no depth perception". My question is that can the doctor determine the NO depth perception from an examination in which there is no verbal feedback from the paient? Or, is it based on feedback from the patient? Or combination of both?
(05-18-2017, 08:55 AM)Nancy Wrote: You can check this yourself. Are both eyes working together, even some of the time? Can you see the 3D Magic Eye pictures? It's not clear to me why you need a physician for this -- I don't want you to get a dire diagnosis which will lock you into a state of feeling your eyes are broken. Here are a couple of posts I wrote about 3D vision. https://www.iblindness.org/1108/seeing-3d/
Lets suppose an individual (not myself) was attempting to gain certain compensation and entitlements by claiming that they have NO depth perception and as a result cannot work at any occupation . Also suppose that the eye doctor state's that "Due to exotropia that the patient has no depth perception". My question is that can the doctor determine the NO depth perception from an examination in which there is no verbal feedback from the paient? Or, is it based on feedback from the patient? Or combination of both?
Thank you again,
RS
Based on your side of the story, it sounds like a scam to me. People who are blind in one eye can work. IF THEY WANT TO. Rather than push back on the doctor's claim, I'd let the lawyers handle it. They're used to spotting someone trying to get away with something. Good luck.
