reading glasses and nearsightedness.... a question...

[jiminos]

Dr. Bates' work teaches us that straining to see things that are near results in hypermetropia.... and straining to see things that are distant results in myopia... i am myopic (wearing minus lenses for almost 40 years), indicating that i strained to see objects far away.... so i find myself wondering....

what would the result be if a myopic person (of long standing) were to use +1 or +1.5 reading glasses? would there be less strain to see near objects? would it result in less myopia and a move towards hypermetropia (or that mystical place somewhere in between called "normal vision" perhaps)?

what do you think?

jim

[bjsilva]

what do you think?

I do agree with Bates in his assessment of the development of refractive errors, so let me give you the Bates perspective.

Consider the common behavioural characteristics of people with myopia - they stare, they try to see too much at one time, they don't "shift" frequently enough, they blink too hard, etc.

Bates essentially describes myopia as a behavioural problem. So, say the myope puts on plus lenses and gets their eyes to focus more accurately - they may see more clearly but have they stopped their bad vision habits? Bates says, and I agree, that the person with refractive errors needs to learn to use their eyes correctly, not "fix" their blurry vision - if you understand the difference.

John

[jiminos]

indeed, i do, john. thank you.